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College Admission American Nurses Credentialing Center: Adult Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner-Board Certified Sample Questions (Q571-Q576):
NEW QUESTION # 571
A PMHNP working in a psychiatric hospital is considering using seclusion and restraint for a patient exhibiting violent, aggressive behavior. Which of the following best describes an appropriate indication of the use of seclusion and restraint in this situation?
- A. To encourage the patient to comply with treatment and follow hospital rules
- B. To protect staff and other patients from harm by limiting the patient's ability to act out violently
- C. To protect the patient from harm by limiting their mobility and access to dangerous objects
- D. To punish the patient for their behavior and discourage future acts of violence
Answer: B
Explanation:
The use of seclusion and restraint is a controversial practice in mental health care and should only be used when necessary. An appropriate indication for using seclusion and restraint is when the patient poses an immediate danger of harm to themselves or others and alternative interventions have failed or are not feasible.
The use of seclusion and restraint is not intended as a punishment or a means of encouraging compliance with treatment or hospital rules). While seclusion and restraint may limit the patient's mobility and access to dangerous objects, the primary goal is to protect staff and other patients from harm.
NEW QUESTION # 572
What focused method of therapy is being used when a provider seeks to view symptoms as metaphors in the hierarchal structure of the family unit?
- A. Family systems therapy
- B. Strategic therapy
- C. Structural family therapy
- D. Solution-focused therapy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Strategic therapy, originated by Jay Haley, is a method in which interventions are both symptom- and problem-focused.
Symptoms are viewed as metaphors and reflect problems in the hierarchal structure. Symptoms are a way to communicate metaphorically within the family.
Solution-focused therapy, originated by Steve DeShazer, Bill O'Hanlon, and Insoo Berg, is a method where the provider focuses on the effective resolution of problems through cognitive problem-solving and the use of personal resources as strengths.
Structural family therapy, originated by Salvador Minuchin, is a model that places emphasis on how, when, and to whom family members relate in order to understand and then change the family's structure.
Family systems therapy, originated by Murray Bowen, is used to increase the family's awareness of each member's function within the family and to increase levels of self-differentiation.
NEW QUESTION # 573
What is another name for childhood-onset fluency disorder?
- A. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
- B. Oppositional defiant disorder
- C. Tourette's disorder
- D. Stuttering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stuttering, also called childhood-onset fluency disorder, occurs when the normal fluency of speech is frequently interrupted.
Tourette's disorder is characterized by two or more motor tics and at least one vocal tic that occur frequently throughout the day. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattentiveness. Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by multiple examples of negativistic behavior persisting for at least six months, usually beginning when a child is three or four years old.
NEW QUESTION # 574
Substance use screening tool interpretation is an important part of advanced assessment and pertinent to the role of the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner. What is the most common tool used to assess for opiate withdrawal?
- A. AUDIT
- B. COWS
- C. S-MAST
- D. CIWA
Answer: B
Explanation:
The COWS (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale) assessment is used to assess the withdrawal severity of opiates.
The CIWA assessment is used to assess the withdrawal severity of alcohol and/or benzodiazepines. The AUDIT assessment is also an alcohol use assessment tool, less commonly used than CIWA. The S-MAST is a tool used to assess and screen for alcoholism in the geriatric population.
NEW QUESTION # 575
A patient presents with symptoms of depression and has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD). What is the most likely pathophysiological explanation for the patient's symptoms?
- A. Chronic inflammation
- B. Imbalance of neurotransmitters
- C. Increased oxidative stress
- D. Abnormal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis function
Answer: B
Explanation:
MDD is a complex condition that is thought to result from a combination of genetic, environmental, and neurobiological factors. The most widely accepted theory of depression is the monoamine hypothesis, which states that an imbalance of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the brain causes depression. Imbalances in these neurotransmitters may contribute to symptoms such as sadness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, and decreased motivation.
Chronic inflammation, abnormal HPA axis function, and increased oxidative stress are also thought to contribute to depression. Still, the role of these factors is less well understood and is considered secondary to the imbalance of neurotransmitters. Therefore, the nurse practitioner should prioritize assessing and managing neurotransmitter imbalances in the care of a patient with MDD.
NEW QUESTION # 576
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